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Can A One Man Business Accept Cash Donation?
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My son is a self employed photographer. He has been doing a lot of unpaid work for small local charities. A local benefactor has asked him if he would accept a donation from her so that he can do more free work for charity.
The amount she mentioned is £10,000 to £20,000.
This is genuine, I have checked the person out ( she has just given £50,000 to local schools to fund music teaching)
The question is, if he accepted this money, what would the legal consequences be? tax for example?
Also the woman is elderly so if she died would he have to pay inheritance tax ? she owns several houses so the estate will be liable for tax.
We are struggling with the moral implications of this, let alone the legal side.
Could he become a charity so that he can use the cash for free work? Any input welcome. He has not agreed to accept the cash yet.
The amount she mentioned is £10,000 to £20,000.
This is genuine, I have checked the person out ( she has just given £50,000 to local schools to fund music teaching)
The question is, if he accepted this money, what would the legal consequences be? tax for example?
Also the woman is elderly so if she died would he have to pay inheritance tax ? she owns several houses so the estate will be liable for tax.
We are struggling with the moral implications of this, let alone the legal side.
Could he become a charity so that he can use the cash for free work? Any input welcome. He has not agreed to accept the cash yet.
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For more on marking an answer as the "Best Answer", please visit our FAQ.Irrespective of the donation, it is business income so he declares it for tax purposes. What the donor expects him to do in return is between him and her.
No, he can't simply become a charity - too complicated.
I agree with Zacs, why doesn't she just give the money to the charities, then they could pay him for his work, if he is OK with earning money from it.
No, he can't simply become a charity - too complicated.
I agree with Zacs, why doesn't she just give the money to the charities, then they could pay him for his work, if he is OK with earning money from it.
i can't see how he would keep it "straight" - she gives a donation of 10k in anticipation he'll do 10k's worth of work for it. However, what if her idea of 10k's worth of work is very different to his? he would have to make a charge for each job - nd what's the difference of that to just getting paid to do the work?
A rich old lady gives £x to someone in the expectation of performing charitable work. If she dies within 7 years then £x maybe subject to IT, which would come from HER estate, not the gift donated. There are no legal implications; the only moral implication would be if he took the money and then did not fulfil the lady's wishes.
The lady has not specified that the money has to be used for charity work. She says she has seen some of the charity work he has done and is impressed with it. She says she wants to 'help' him , he assumes that she means for him to be able to do more of the same thing if he does not have to worry about the cash side of it. He has to earn a living , the photography is his only source of income.
I think something in writing needs to come with the money, if it says something along the lines that she is giving it to the Business as a payment to enable him to continue working for the charities for free, it would be seen as taxable income. If, however, it said that she was so pleased with the services that he gave to charities and she wanted to present him with some money that would be seen as a gift for tax purposes. If a gift and she died within 7 years and there was enough money in the estate to cover IHT including all gifts the executor would pay it. If after adding gifts back in there was not enough then he would be asked along with other donees to contribute. If the estate was below IHT at death but the gifts sent it over then each individual receipient would be liable for their own tax.
Good answer ubasses, and it covers off both the IHT issue, which I and others alluded to, but also how to get around the issue of the money being seen by HMRC as income for the OP's son.
Its a really interesting question and I spent a little time researching this today, but couldn't find anything definitive in HMRC files about when a 'gift' (that I think we all agree is not income for tax purposes) becomes a 'payment for services (either explicitly or implicitly)'. Most of us, I trust, would agree the later is taxable for the recipient.
By making a specific statement that it is a gift to express pleasure for services done only, that probably nails it. I don't think any reference should be made about future expectations of volunteering.
The last thing I comment is that the very charitable lady would not be able to claim personal tax relief on this gift, because it is not going to a charitable beneficiary, whereas the money she donated to the school (probably) is. She may not be bothered about that however.
Its a really interesting question and I spent a little time researching this today, but couldn't find anything definitive in HMRC files about when a 'gift' (that I think we all agree is not income for tax purposes) becomes a 'payment for services (either explicitly or implicitly)'. Most of us, I trust, would agree the later is taxable for the recipient.
By making a specific statement that it is a gift to express pleasure for services done only, that probably nails it. I don't think any reference should be made about future expectations of volunteering.
The last thing I comment is that the very charitable lady would not be able to claim personal tax relief on this gift, because it is not going to a charitable beneficiary, whereas the money she donated to the school (probably) is. She may not be bothered about that however.
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