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We agreed to purchase goods through a finance agreement.
We had to delay installation of the goods due to circumstances beyond our control.
The original finance agreement lapsed so a salesman came out to get us to sign another one.
At the same time he asked us to sign a completion notice assuring us in writing that we would not actually have to pay anything until the goods had been installed. Not So!
The finance agreement has now been cancelled by the finance company as we were misled into signing the completion notice , I assume this was so the company could get the money from the finance company.
We are now being threatened with court action by the company as we still cannot have the goods installed.
Does the fact that the contract was based on the goods being payed for by finance, which has now been cancelled by the finance company as they agree that we were misled, mean that we could be in a position to get out of the contract?
No best answer has yet been selected by simpav. Once a best answer has been selected, it will be shown here.
For more on marking an answer as the "Best Answer", please visit our FAQ.It would be normal for you to sign two documents - one would be the order for the goods, which creates a contract between you and the company supplying them; the other would be the finance agreement. However, it is possible that you could still have a contract with the supplier even if you did not sign a separate document - contracts can be verbal and the supplier is unlikely to have gone into the whole process of getting the finance set up without being confident you had a contract with him. For example, if you were given a completed order form this would almost certainly be taken as a commitment.
If you did enter into a contract with the goods supplier then I don't think you can get out of it just because the finance agreement has been cancelled.