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Bazile | 10:59 Wed 11th Sep 2024 | History
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If the nazi's had won , how would Hitler have 'shared ' the countries conquered , with the Japanese .

Was there some agreement made between them beforehand ?

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.

The Japanese would have controlled China, South East Asia, and Australia.

The Nazis would have exploited the resources of Africa, the oil  of the Middle East, and the riches of India.

There would have been plenty to go round.

 

They'd have just kept what they conquered.

There was a pre war agreement that if Japan  entered the war against American, then Germany wd join

so after the Day of Infamy - Roosevelt didnt need a reason for declaring war on Germany

Japan occupied the French Colonial Empire - by er agreement when Petain surrendered and occupied it along with lots more ( Dutch Empire) - as the er co-prosperity economic sphere - ( I kid you nart)

I am not sure if they had agreed on the spoils - Things began to go wrong for Japan quickly ( US sank their navy)

 

Question Author

Crikey PP , how did you come across that post , from a month ago ?

this is quite good

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Japanese_invasion_of_French_Indochina

The French maintained they had sovereignty and if they did the Japanese bidding the French civilians wd not be interned. 

oh in history, 9 Sep - 

bored by tonights dross on News and Chatterbank

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Ok 🙂

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