ChatterBank0 min ago
Ww2
If the nazi's had won , how would Hitler have 'shared ' the countries conquered , with the Japanese .
Was there some agreement made between them beforehand ?
Answers
No best answer has yet been selected by Bazile. Once a best answer has been selected, it will be shown here.
For more on marking an answer as the "Best Answer", please visit our FAQ.There was a pre war agreement that if Japan entered the war against American, then Germany wd join
so after the Day of Infamy - Roosevelt didnt need a reason for declaring war on Germany
Japan occupied the French Colonial Empire - by er agreement when Petain surrendered and occupied it along with lots more ( Dutch Empire) - as the er co-prosperity economic sphere - ( I kid you nart)
I am not sure if they had agreed on the spoils - Things began to go wrong for Japan quickly ( US sank their navy)
this is quite good
https:/
The French maintained they had sovereignty and if they did the Japanese bidding the French civilians wd not be interned.