ChatterBank2 mins ago
Gay Marriage Question - Part 2
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Ok then guys and dolls, Say two blokes got married and one of them slept with another person causing divorce why cant they call it aldultery but they can for man and woman relationships. If they want marriage to be equal for all types of couples why is adultery only for heterosexual couples.
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No best answer has yet been selected by Nay37. Once a best answer has been selected, it will be shown here.
For more on marking an answer as the "Best Answer", please visit our FAQ.I expect gay people would agree with you
The problem is that the civil servants drafting the legislation can't agree on a form of words to define either consummation of a gay marriage or an act of adultery with another person of the same sex .
However, adultery will be a permitted grounds for divorce if it follows sexual intercourse between one of the couple and someone of the opposite sex
The problem is that the civil servants drafting the legislation can't agree on a form of words to define either consummation of a gay marriage or an act of adultery with another person of the same sex .
However, adultery will be a permitted grounds for divorce if it follows sexual intercourse between one of the couple and someone of the opposite sex
well as this is a democracy what is 'right' is that the majority want it to be and according to the Polls, the majority of British people are in favour of marriage equality
As far as the supposed 'pink vote' is concerned, it is by definition a small minority that has no significant impact in any marginal seats, so I doubt if DC is courting it. He probably does have an agenda to appear more up to date, more fair-minded and less 'stick-in-the-mud' or reactionary.
As far as the supposed 'pink vote' is concerned, it is by definition a small minority that has no significant impact in any marginal seats, so I doubt if DC is courting it. He probably does have an agenda to appear more up to date, more fair-minded and less 'stick-in-the-mud' or reactionary.
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