Generic

[Connemmara]

I know I can ask this question on google but want personal replies if you don't mind. What does it mean if your doctor gives you GENERIC pills - are they the real macoy or does it genuinely mean a different brand name.

I am under generic pills at the moment but I don't feel they help me as well as the real macoy - but then it could be my imagination. TIA

[EcclesCake]

Anadin is a trade name for the generic aspirin.

All the drugs are subject to the same controls, it's the same drug in a different wrapper.

[bednobs]

it just means they don't have a brand name - (as an example it's like the difference between ASDA ibuprofen at 16p a pack, and nuerofen at £2.20 a pack = exactly the same active medication but more expensive because of a brand name. Different maunfacturers might have different "other" ingredients (ie the stuff they use to make it into a tablet, but the actual medicine will be the same

[bednobs]

i seem to have a big prob closing my brackets, sorry!

[Connemmara]

thanks for that

[Sqad]

Generic.........is the medical name e.g Ibuprofen.
Trade name....is the company name...Nurofen

As bednobs has described.

[Sqad]

Also Eccles is spot on.

it is interesting that you mention that the generic form is not as effecteive as the trade form........this is a common complaint and i do not know the answer.

Imigran is the trade name and sumatriptan is the generic name and patients often state that Imigran (Trade name) is more effective than Sumatriptan (Generic name)........?

[Connemmara]

thanks sqad

[woofgang]

The only thing that I have found about trade named drugs vs generic is that the trade named ones tend to be easier to swallow because they are coated, ether with film of sugar so they don't dissolve in the mouth and taste disgusting.

[boxtops]

I think it's psychological - people know the same of Solpadeine (for example) but generic Boots cocodamol is exactly the same thing and works just as well.

[LazyGun]

You might find this article of interest, Connemara

Generics vs Brandeds have the same active ingredients with the same pharmokinetics, but, as the article states, "The drug may differ in color, shape, taste, inactive ingredients, preservatives and packaging, however."

Any or all of these differences may have some impact on the drugs perceived effectiveness...

http://www.scientificamerican.com/article.cfm?id=whats-the-difference-betw-2004-12-13

[solvitquick]

There is a very simple answer to this. It's all about patents. When a new drug is discovered and patented, it can only be sold by the inventing company over 20 or 50 years (I forget which. Hence when your doctor prescribes the drug, the phamacist can only get it from that one company.
However, when the patent expires the drug can be manufactured by anyone provided they meet strict manufacturing and safety standards set by NICE in the UK or the FDA in the USA. So the drug is now availble from many sources instead of one supplier. The drug is now a part of a group of suppliers armoury. That group of products is now termed "generic". This gives your doctor choice as to whether precribe the original discovering company's product or another (perhaps) cheaper version.
In all cases, if a drug is deemed safe for you to buy by your own judgement it is no longer prescription-only and is made available by supermarkets etc. It is now termed OTC meaning Over The Counter.
Typically, antibiotics like the penicillin group, will never be OTC because uncontrolled use would render them even more widely bacterial-resistant and worthless in killing the bugs.
There are also "midway" drugs termed pharmacy-only e.g. you can only buy them from the chemists like Boots or Lloyds. Hydrocortisone is a typical example.
Sorry about the length of this - maybe you will need an aspirin or paracetamol tablet after the headache of reading this, lol.
Regards,
SIQ.