Marketing a property without a signed contract

[NixnJay]

In a divorce case, the court has decreed that the formal matrimonial home be sold by a "sole" estate agent, chosen by both parties. Un workable as neither parties on speaking terms(a long and unnecessarily relevant story!) House is marketed by estate agents of ex wife's choosing, and ex husband goes along with choice. Then, un beknown to him, she further instructs 3 other agents, thus falling into multiple agents fees. When querying the fact that he has signed no contract with the other agents, and how could they be marketing it without his authority, they guffed on about how they were mis-lead by exwife and would remove from their books. Upshot being, supposed buyer has now been found, draft contract and memorandum of sale has arrived on his mat, and STILL no contract has been signed by him! Has been told he can spend about 2k taking her back to court, but shud probably just roll over and accept sale, but what if any, redress does he have against the estate agent? Once agent had full knowledge of her falsely trying to sell the house without his knowledge, should he not have left it the hell alone? Agent is not part of any governing body, so no redress that way, so any suggestions gratefully received. Thks

[waterbabe]

Your question is a bit obscure. No response from other partner indicates that they do not want house to be sold.
My ex blocked the sale of our house even though the court said the house had to be sold. He wouldnt move out, priced it so high that it would never be sold and is still in the property 18 yrs later.
If you have a difficult parter the solicitor/court costs take any equity there is in the property
Hope it works out for you