Quizzes & Puzzles0 min ago
Employer Took Pension
can an employer take money from your pension that they think you owe them? They have told me I was overpaid and I appealed this but didn't hear anything.I retired 2 weeks after this. They now seem to have taken thousands from my gratuity..Can they do this?
Answers
I think there is a difference here between criminal & civil law. Probably what has been done is not criminal, but does it breach civil law? For example if a creditor wants to get money from a debtor he cann ot just ask the debtor's bank to give it to him. He has to go to Court, get a County Court Judgement & then follow the enforcement procedure to get it from the bank. I...
17:24 Thu 04th Jul 2013
Firstly, the employer most definitely hasn't committed theft. The Theft Act 1968 states:
"A person’s appropriation of property belonging to another is not to be regarded as dishonest . . .if he appropriates the property in the belief that he has in law the right to deprive the other of it, on behalf of himself or of a third person"
and
" “Property” includes money . . . "
So the matter is purely a civil one, not a criminal one. If they've definitely overpaid you they have every right to take the money. If they've not overpaid you then, clearly, they haven't. If you can't agree on the matter then only a court can decide the issue. If you're confident that you can show that you weren't overpaid, initiate court action through the official online procedure here:
https:/ /www.mo neyclai m.gov.u k/web/m col/wel come
Chris
"A person’s appropriation of property belonging to another is not to be regarded as dishonest . . .if he appropriates the property in the belief that he has in law the right to deprive the other of it, on behalf of himself or of a third person"
and
" “Property” includes money . . . "
So the matter is purely a civil one, not a criminal one. If they've definitely overpaid you they have every right to take the money. If they've not overpaid you then, clearly, they haven't. If you can't agree on the matter then only a court can decide the issue. If you're confident that you can show that you weren't overpaid, initiate court action through the official online procedure here:
https:/
Chris
You say you retired 2 weeks after the claim that you were overpaid, and that had you stayed on the money would have been recovered in monthly instalments.
Did you retire so as to avoid repaying the money? I ask because 2 weeks is not enough time to investigate the possible overpayment it could take months.
Can you be clearer about this was it pension or gratuity that they have taken?
Did you retire so as to avoid repaying the money? I ask because 2 weeks is not enough time to investigate the possible overpayment it could take months.
Can you be clearer about this was it pension or gratuity that they have taken?
Chrisgel:
Deductions from wages are, indeed, often unlawful but not when they relate to earlier overpayments:
https:/ /www.go v.uk/un derstan ding-yo ur-pay/ deducti ons-fro m-your- pay
Deductions from wages are, indeed, often unlawful but not when they relate to earlier overpayments:
https:/
This is basically going over what I've already said but . . .
Anyone who thinks that you owe them money is within their rights to take that money from you. Since it's only a civil matter, the ONLY thing that you can (lawfully) do to get it back is to make a formal written demand for repayment and then, when you don't get your money back, seek a court order in your favour. Nothing else that anyone writes here can change that.
Anyone who thinks that you owe them money is within their rights to take that money from you. Since it's only a civil matter, the ONLY thing that you can (lawfully) do to get it back is to make a formal written demand for repayment and then, when you don't get your money back, seek a court order in your favour. Nothing else that anyone writes here can change that.
>>>. . .and they have no right to automatically hit my pen/grat.
Oh yes they have. The source of the money is immaterial. If, for example, you'd got £10,000 lying on your coffee table when your former boss called round, he could simply pick it up and say "Thanks. That's what you owe us".
Similarly, if your boss was asked to take you your share of the winnings from a staff syndicate win on the lottery, he could take the £10,000 out of that.
Anyone who genuinely believes that you owe them money is entitled to take that money from wherever they can get at it.
Oh yes they have. The source of the money is immaterial. If, for example, you'd got £10,000 lying on your coffee table when your former boss called round, he could simply pick it up and say "Thanks. That's what you owe us".
Similarly, if your boss was asked to take you your share of the winnings from a staff syndicate win on the lottery, he could take the £10,000 out of that.
Anyone who genuinely believes that you owe them money is entitled to take that money from wherever they can get at it.
Careful, BC. If someone I owe money to is in my house and sees my property, he is not entitled to seize it. It doesn't matter whether that's a diamond brooch or cash. Otherwise we'd hardly need court-appointed bailiffs ( or courts, come to that). His seizing my property could amount to theft. He is taking property which does not belong to him but to me, with the intention of permanently depriving me of it. His only defence would be that he wasn't dishonest, in that he would have to plead that normal, reasonable, people applying their proper standards of honesty would not regard it as dishonest. That might be a bit of a stretch for them, since they wouldn't do it.
I maintain that Section 2 1(a) holds true, FP:
http:// www.leg islatio n.gov.u k/ukpga /1968/6 0/cross heading /defini tion-of -theft
There have been plenty of examples of banks taking money from one account of a person, to pay off an overdraft from another account in their name, even when the funds in the first account didn't actually belong to the named account holder. (e.g. because he was holding the money on behalf of a club). The courts have ruled that the banks could lawfully take the money, leaving the clubs to sue the account holders.
http://
There have been plenty of examples of banks taking money from one account of a person, to pay off an overdraft from another account in their name, even when the funds in the first account didn't actually belong to the named account holder. (e.g. because he was holding the money on behalf of a club). The courts have ruled that the banks could lawfully take the money, leaving the clubs to sue the account holders.
As to the civil law part, a person is entitled to sue for the recovery of monies paid by them under a fundamental mistake of fact. The person overpaid can hardly complain if they are overpaid by mistake and the employer deducts money from their subsequent wage payments.It's that or get a judgment against them for the whole sum and take the court's directions.
Don't quite see how this rough and ready approach applies to pensions but I can see how it can to bonus payments and gratuities for long service or the like.
Don't quite see how this rough and ready approach applies to pensions but I can see how it can to bonus payments and gratuities for long service or the like.