Question Author
@murraymints
It would be fair to call it poetic licence because, although "eclipse" now has a highly specific scientific definition, back in the 1st century, it would have been instantly understood to mean "the sun went black… for while". For its intended audience, it was the right word to use.
Indeed, we do not know whether everyone, at that time was a flat earther or whether they had figured out that eclipses were caused by the moon. That, in itself, entails belief in a heliocentric solar system.
It would not be perceived as an inconsitent story if a person, in those times, believed that eclipses were a thing that the sun did, by itself and of course the full moon was present, because it was passover.
@mikey and Cloverjo
Peter's link mentions 39AD. The choice of that year is another debate entirely but the nearest eclipse they could find, visible from Israel was November of that year.
If Passover is somehow dependent on full moon then it is a "moveable feast". The exact date is academic, for the purposes of this thread because the contradiction in question is full moon versus eclipse: - can't have both.
@jno
Good answer. Anything recogniseable as a weather event would not have cut the mustard as a story embellishment. Somewhere well down on Peter's link there was even a suggestion that contemporary audiences would have needed to understand this moon contradiction for the sky darkening to be at all mysterious or supernatural, likewise with sudden weather changes, coming off the sea or sandstorms, coming in off the desert.