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ChatterBank3 mins ago
My husband and I seperated in August 2004. We had a marital home which was finally sold in April 2005 and after the mortgage was cleared we split the funds 50/50 which was done by the solictior overseeing the sale. I bought a house on my own in July 2005 with the proceeds of the house sale. I am not yet divorced from my husband, but a friend at work commented recently that she thinks I should get divorced as she believes my husband could be entitled to claim half of my new house? Does anyone know if this is true?
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