I have tried this in 'business' but no response. Am i, by law, entitled to ask for a share of the �20.000 profit my business made last year when I was an equal partner in it with my husband. (We split up after the financial 'year end' ). I have not been to a solicitor yet but will be next week hopefully.
Could it not be argued that as the profits were not distributed they have been reinvested in the business. I think you have now transferred your shares over to him so you have no legal claim to the companys funds. That would be my concern......
If you still owned your shares you could claim previously undistributed profits as a payment now, but not if you no longer own the shares.
Sorry if I confised you with someone else who gave their 50% away !!