Quizzes & Puzzles5 mins ago
Probabilty
If I have a 14% advantage over each of my opponents, then what is the probability of winning 6 matches in a row?
Answers
Best Answer
No best answer has yet been selected by oneinam. Once a best answer has been selected, it will be shown here.
For more on marking an answer as the "Best Answer", please visit our FAQ.Assuming that there are only the 2 of you, and that a draw isn't possible, your criterion of a 14% advantage implies that the probability of you winning = 0.57 (57%) and that of your opponent winning = 0.43 (43%).
So the probability of you winning 6 times in a row = 0.57 raised to the power of 6 = 0.0343 (to 3 s f) = 3.43%
So the probability of you winning 6 times in a row = 0.57 raised to the power of 6 = 0.0343 (to 3 s f) = 3.43%
It all depends on your interpretation of "14% advantage".
If we take it, as Chris as, that you have a straight 14% points more, then 57% and 43% is correct.
There is, however, an alternative to consider:
Assuming that a draw isn't possible, we'll take a simple example of flipping a coin.
If you're evenly matched, you both have a 50% chance of winning.
If one has a 14% advantage (as in, they win 14% more flips), then the answer is given by:
x + y = 1
and
x = 1.14y
This yields x = 0.533 and y = 0.467
This holds, as x is 14% greater than y.
/
To win 6 games on the trot = 0.533 ^ 6 = 0.0229 = 2.29%
I'm not saying Chris is wrong, it all depends on what is meant by the 14% advantage.
If we take it, as Chris as, that you have a straight 14% points more, then 57% and 43% is correct.
There is, however, an alternative to consider:
Assuming that a draw isn't possible, we'll take a simple example of flipping a coin.
If you're evenly matched, you both have a 50% chance of winning.
If one has a 14% advantage (as in, they win 14% more flips), then the answer is given by:
x + y = 1
and
x = 1.14y
This yields x = 0.533 and y = 0.467
This holds, as x is 14% greater than y.
/
To win 6 games on the trot = 0.533 ^ 6 = 0.0229 = 2.29%
I'm not saying Chris is wrong, it all depends on what is meant by the 14% advantage.
Thanks, GM.
I struggled a bit with '14% advantage' as it's definitely not a phrase that I would have encountered when either studying or teaching probability theory. (It's simply not 'mathematical' enough). I'm happy to agree with your answer if the definition you've adopted is the one which was meant in the question (and I'll stick with my own if I've assumed the correct definition of '14% advantage').
I struggled a bit with '14% advantage' as it's definitely not a phrase that I would have encountered when either studying or teaching probability theory. (It's simply not 'mathematical' enough). I'm happy to agree with your answer if the definition you've adopted is the one which was meant in the question (and I'll stick with my own if I've assumed the correct definition of '14% advantage').