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Hyperinflation

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mountainboo | 17:29 Sun 14th Aug 2011 | History
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Has Britain ever experienced hyperinflation? I have heard many people compare our future economy to that of the Weimar Republic. Surely the hyperinflation that Germany experienced was as a direct result of the Great War and the Treaty of Versailles which forced them to pay huge reparations?
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Germany's hyper-inflation came about as the INdirect result of those events. The direct cause was what is now known as 'quantitative easing', i.e. printing money to try to get out of debt.

This seems to be relevant to your question:
http://www.bankofengl...on/timeline/chart.htm
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Thanks Buenchico, so the U.S are about to commence QE3.
... but probably not on the same scale as Germany did
Hardly on the same scale as the Weimar republic, where money devalued so rapidly that workers were paid hourly, rather than weekly. Those wages needed a wheelbarrow to transport them home; a few trillion marks might have bought you a loaf of bread. I think Zimbabwe was/is heading in the same direction.
Somalia has been there too......and several other countries - Brazil, Argentina, Mexico........
zimbabwe was way worse than Germany

http://www.creditwrit...abwe-100-trillion.jpg

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