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Treaty of Urga.

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123everton | 23:00 Wed 13th Aug 2008 | History
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Is the treaty of Urga enough to qualfy Tibetan claims of independence?
Or is there more?
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I believe the Fact that Tibetans have their own Traditional Lands, their Own Customs and Languages, is all that should be required for them to have their own Nation if that is what the Majority of the Population desires.
Neither the Chinese nor any Other national Culture has any God-Given Right to wrest their Land from them. Only by Might has this Happened and Might does Not Equal Right.
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The whole of China's like that look at Yunnan (as one) for instance, there are even numerous variations of the same languages they even have a type of recieved pronounciation for the Mandarin spoken on state TV.
What you speak of are sentiments not legality, I'm not looking for rhetoric I'm seeking historical facts that back up the claims of Tibetan independence, I've asked on 3 different threads and yours is the first attempt at an answer.
To try and utilise an analogy in order to make a point what if Cornwall (has it's own flag) decided to leave the U.K? They have their own language and their own customs and their own defined boundaries of land on what basis could thry proclaim indepence legally?
Is "Free Tibet!" actually an example of wanting a "Passport To Pimlico"?

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