Immanuel & Jesus

[EJV]

Virgin Mary was asked to call her son"Immanuel".Then why he was called Jesus Christ??

[Clanad]

The fullfilment of prophesy is one of the indicators of reliability in Scripture.  Isaiah 7:14 states Therefore the Lord Himself shall give you a sign; a virgin shall concieve and bear a son and {they} shall call his name Immanuel.  This is repeated in the narrative of Matthew 1:23.  In ancient times names were often given as representations of the hopes and dreams of the parents or even of recognition of divine assistance. Names in the Old Testament had understandable meanings. names are more descriptive in the Hebrew and Greek then they are in English. They often refer to the character, purpose, etc., of the one being named. The closest we come to understanding this is in Native American culture. We are familiar with such names as "Running Bear," or "Pretty Eagle, "or "White Owl" as names. These names meant something and were far more descriptive than "Bob," or "Tom," or "Sue." So, we can see that a prophecy of Jesus being "Immanuel" is dealing with him being God, the Word, in flesh. This was fulfilled in the birth of Jesus (Yeshua) when the Word, known as the Son, second person of the Trinity, became flesh. We call this the incarnation.
     When it came time to name the Lord, an angel the Lord appeared to Joseph in a dream and told Joseph to call his new son "Jesus, for it is He who will save His people from their sins" (Matt. 1:21). The word "Jesus" means "Yahweh is salvation." This is appropriate since Jesus is Yahweh, second person of the Trinity, who became flesh and is our salvation...

[Cetti]

This verse didn't mean literally to call him Immanuel or Emanuel. The translation is 'God with us' . God came down from heaven to take  human form in the person of Jesus. Christ means Saviour.

In Nazareth he was known by the name  Jesus, son of Mary, which was a nasty dig at Joseph as there were rumours implying that Joseph was not his father.

PS. Typed in haste so hope it makes sense - and not gibberish!

[EJ2005]

Immanuel means 'God with us'. Jesus means 'the Lord saves', and is the Greek form of Joshua. Christ means 'the Anointed One', and derives from Greek, and 'Messiah' means 'the Anointed One' also but in Hebrew.

[bernardo]

Because she wasn't stupid enough just to copy the first name that someone suggested.

[Greenbhoy]

I'm just glad it didn't happen in the present day and Mary was a Chav.......then he would have been kalled, Brandon, Kai, Brooklyn or now, Cruz.

[EJV]

Thanks for the discussion.But I am afraid,all these responses are just beating about the bush.If "Jesus " and "Christ " has been taken from the Greek meanings, how can that be possible in a land where Jews spoke Aramaic and were ruled by Romans who spoke latin?

[Clanad]

Sigh... I think most that answered assumed (incorrectly) that you understood that the Bible, both Old and New Testaments were written in original languages, i.e., Hebrew, Aramaic and Greek, which were then translated into other languages.  Jesus the Christ, is a translation of Y'eshua ha' Massiach. Greek does not have two of the sounds required to tranliterate Y'eshua; the "Y" sound nor the "sh" sound. So the best that could be done was the "ee-ay-soo-ah" sounding of the Aramaic.  But, additionally, Greek masculine surnames usually don't end in a vowel sound.  Those that do are automatically given the Sigma or "s" as the ending, rendering the name as "ee-ay-soo-ah-s". However, the vowel sound before the final "s" is never seen in the Greek, thus the final pronounced name would have been "ee-ay-soos". Thus was He known for 400 years.  When first translated in Latin, it was pronounced the same, but spelled Iesus, and pronounced the same as in the Greek.  The "J" sound was unknown in all the referenced languages and unknown in Old English until the 12th century. With the arrival of Middle English, "J" was substituted for "I", but for many speakers, even today in Spanish speaking countries, it is still pronounced "Hay-soos".

As posted in another related question, had one inquired concerning the whereabouts of Jesus in his day, one would have asked for Y'eshua ben Yosep'h, meaning, Jesus son of Joseph.  It could have been stated "...bar Yosep'h", depending on the amount of Hebrew influence in the region.

BTW, although Aramaic was the lingua franca of the time for the geographical area of Israel, Greek was also spoken fluently by most, even the Roman rulers. Latin did not become the language of Christianity until the 3rd century A.D.

[calleach]

cos it hurt so much when he came out