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boundry dispute

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bongoben | 11:32 Thu 03rd May 2007 | Law
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Please, what is the difference between a court order and consent between neighbours? what do they look like? The case did go to court and the document I have in my possetion says BY CONSENT IT IS ORDERED THAT. Then conditions set out. sighned by our barrister and witnesses, their barrister and witnesses. This case was with ex neighbours. The same and another new dispute has started again and we can't afford a solictor we don't have any money. me and my wife only work part time. Please can some body help
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That sounds like a court order you have - it means that "by consent of both parties it is ordered that ..........."

Did you go before a Judge - he will have signed it also and sealed it with the stamp of the court. There should be an action "smith v smith" - a court No. which court it was heard in etc Or is it just a piece of paper with the wording on?

You say they are ex-neighbours? Then what is the problem at the moment? - a bit more info might be needed first. Is it that new people live next door and the same problem has arisen? If so send them a copy of the order and tell them that any action will be contested.
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thakyou for that no it is just a peice of paper no court address, no stamp, no court hearing no. cant tell if the judge sighned it or not. the problem is the neighbour have put fences on our land at their second property. and we should win if we do is to exchange the land that we lost. thankyou for your help.
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yes we did go before a judge.
What you have is a court order:' By consent' means that it was not disputed at the time.

However,it will not apply to new neighbours.This was a civil agreement only between parties.

It may help you to show it to your new neighbours but it no longer carries any force.
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Dear Vesper99. Thankyou for your asnwer. I am apart time woker and very poor. neighbour is wealthy, please help.
how sure are are you about court order?
Best Regards

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