News34 mins ago
division of home when divorcing
My husband and I are going through a very bad patch in our marriage, and I am concerned as to where I stand regarding my home.
Our home is in my sole name, both on the title deeds and with the mortgage company. I already had a property when I allowed my partner to move in with me and he had no assets whatsoever due to being made bankrupt.
I therefore have had to purchase our subsequent homes in my sole name using my sole salary details etc.
Therefore our home is not in his name at all, should we finally split up, where do I stand on this, am I legally obliged to give him half as we married 2 years ago, I did not put his name on the deeds or morgage.
Of course he has contributed towards the bills and food etc., but the mortgage itself has been paid out of my monthly salary held within my bank account - he does not have a bank account of his own due to his bankruptcy 9 years ago.
Anyone have any idea where I stand please - would appreciate any help ?
Thanks.
Answers
No best answer has yet been selected by maco. Once a best answer has been selected, it will be shown here.
For more on marking an answer as the "Best Answer", please visit our FAQ.Sorry to hear you're having a rough time at the moment.
I got divorced four years ago and my position was the reverse of yours. I moved into my then Husband's house - my name was never added to the ownership of the property.
My Solicitor at the time said I could challenge for 50% of the house, but advised against it. She said it would cost a fortune and at the end of the day in all probability I would get nothing.
We did not have a mortgage on the property and therefore I cannot comment on the legalities. However in my divorce settlement I was granted reimbursement of all monies I had spent on the property, ie. 50% of what we'd spent on a new washing machine, decoration, conversion works, etc.
Hope this helps. Good luck for the future.
hello.. It is generally the case that if the sharer of a property can prove that they have contributed towards the house then they are entitled to a %. In my case this was not 50% as the person in question could not prove that they had contributed this amount. also should be taken into account the fact that you owned the house first and the fact that the husband would not have been easily able to get a morgage due to bancrupcy. I would suggest calling Citzens advise who will be able to advise.
Related Questions
Sorry, we can't find any related questions. Try using the search bar at the top of the page to search for some keywords, or choose a topic and submit your own question.