Quizzes & Puzzles19 mins ago
Sexual Discrimination
Wimbledon is to pay women the same as the men.
Surely this is sexual discrimination against the men, isn't it?
They are getting the same money as the women despite the fact that the men do almost double the work.
Surely this is sexual discrimination against the men, isn't it?
They are getting the same money as the women despite the fact that the men do almost double the work.
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For more on marking an answer as the "Best Answer", please visit our FAQ.Well, one school of thought is that the men do more work than the women and so deserve more, but then if that is the case I see no reason why you can't fully extend that argument and have all of the winnings fully dealt out according to time on court, or number of sets won. Does a man who takes 5 sets to win deserve more than someone who rattles of 3 quick sets? If a woman takes 3 sets to dispose of someone, does that mean she's done the same work as the man who has won in straight sets?
If it's a question of prestige, and viewing figures, then the men's tour is more popular and brings in more money, and so perhaps there is a vaild point with this kind of argument, more so than the previous.
Either way I find it hard to get very worked up about one set of millionaires earning a few more thousand than another set of millionaires.
If it's a question of prestige, and viewing figures, then the men's tour is more popular and brings in more money, and so perhaps there is a vaild point with this kind of argument, more so than the previous.
Either way I find it hard to get very worked up about one set of millionaires earning a few more thousand than another set of millionaires.
But vhg, if the male athletes are on the track for a shorter time than women in similar events then surely that means they've worked harder because they've run the same distance in a faster time.
The argument in tennis has always been that the men can in theory play 35 sets of tennis to win a grand slam whereas the women need only win 21. So the men (could)play 66% more tennis.
The argument in tennis has always been that the men can in theory play 35 sets of tennis to win a grand slam whereas the women need only win 21. So the men (could)play 66% more tennis.
No, cos that would be silly and impractical Supernick.
Women play a minimum of 2 maximum of 3.
Men play a minimum of 3 maximum of 5.
Which means most of the time men play more sets than women, which is one of the reasons they got more.
The argument for paying women the same is actually that they put in about the same work at the end of the day because men's tennis is so fast and powerful that there are more aces, and each point only lasts about 3 hits.
Contrast that to the womens game where they actually have proper rallies which last more than about 5 seconds.
I don't know how valid that argument is. It doesn't seem right to me.
Women play a minimum of 2 maximum of 3.
Men play a minimum of 3 maximum of 5.
Which means most of the time men play more sets than women, which is one of the reasons they got more.
The argument for paying women the same is actually that they put in about the same work at the end of the day because men's tennis is so fast and powerful that there are more aces, and each point only lasts about 3 hits.
Contrast that to the womens game where they actually have proper rallies which last more than about 5 seconds.
I don't know how valid that argument is. It doesn't seem right to me.
This is not a sexist argument (I believe in a woman prime minister and women priests) but you have only got to look at the amount of media coverage mens tour tennis gets compared with women to realise that womens tennis is a non-event.. The Chief Exec of Wimbledon was embarrassing the other night trying to justify it. Another point is that women have more time to enter doubles and mixed and so win more money that way. My third point - could tennis be handicapped in some way so that Federer at least gets a game.
If men and women played each other then obviously women would never win, so that is why they need a separate championship. What I cant understand is why there are separate competitions in darts, bowls and snooker. In yachting and horse riding they compete against each other. The only woman I can think of coming anywhere near the men is Paula Radcliffe but even then she would not come in the top 100.
Where will all this end, given that the female tennis players are paid the same, will this set a precedence? Will we now see England's Lady footballers paid the same as the Male England squad?
Thinking about it though and to be fair all round, why not pay the present squad the same as the England Ladies?
Thinking about it though and to be fair all round, why not pay the present squad the same as the England Ladies?