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Tortious interference
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is this a tort in American law or can it be applied in English law also?
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No best answer has yet been selected by Iggle Piggle. Once a best answer has been selected, it will be shown here.
For more on marking an answer as the "Best Answer", please visit our FAQ.No, it applies this side of the pond as well. See here (paragraph beginning 'inducing a breach of contract')
http://en.wikipedia.o..._torts_in_English_law
http://en.wikipedia.o..._torts_in_English_law
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