Question about assualt and domestic violence towards men

[pris42]

My friend has been charged with assaulting his ex - he has admitted he hit her but only after she hit him twice in succession and verbally abused him on a regular basis. He hit her as an instinctive reaction to her hitting him (self-defence?) and she suffered no lasting or even much immediate damage - there were no marks on her at all. After hitting her he immediately backed away and did not approach her again.

How far will the Court take into consideration the fact that she often verbally and physically attacked him? I know that there has been more awareness recently about men being the victims of domestic violence but is this being reflected in the Courts? Also, as he is quite considerably bigger than her will this go against him even if she did not really suffer any harm?

Any advice would be most gratefully received, many many thanks.

[Ethel]

Is there any record of this on his medical notes or any other proof that he has been a victim of abuse?