Automatic Presumption of Guilt?

[mootpoint1891]

Hi am in first months of training in legal profession (UK), can anyone shed any light on the following?

This is an update to an earlier question which has not been fully answered: See http://www.theanswerbank.co.uk/Law/Criminal/Question803571.html

........would have thought that a 'guilty' plea to one offence would lead to an automatic presumption of guilt to another alleged offence in the same incident and prosecution would continue dependent upon how serious offences are and magistrate or judges opinion, since it is a magistrate or judge who will agree to a 'bind over' not the prosecution? I cannot see how a judge/magistrate would impose say a 'fine' for one offence (guilty plea) and then a 'bind over' for another offence (not guilty plea) in the same hearing, I would have thought it was either/or, all or nothing scenario and always dependent upon how serious case is? Confusing to say the least?

[New Judge]

I'll answer more fully later, but essentially the imposition of a "Bind Over" is usually done without a plea being entered. In essence, no prosecution is made on the understanding that the person who might otherwise be prosecuted agress to be bound over.