I left my wife 16 years ago but she has continued to live in the family home since - My children are both 18. What is my legal entitlement to the home and can I force her to sell?
We have been divorced 14 years and I agreed that the house wouldn't be sorted out until the children were 18 - they are now both over 18. Am I entitled to 50% or less because I haven't lived in the house. I have always paid maintenance for the children. There is now no mortgage on the house - it was paid off 12 years ago.
If you have no written agreement you may find she has acquired squatter's rights.
But wouldn't it be simplest all round to put the house in the children's names, whilst giving the exwife the right to live there for her lifetime ?