Donate SIGN UP
Home > Law > Beneficial Interest

Beneficial Interest

Avatar Image
Elley | 08:04 Sat 29th Mar 2014 | Law
24 Answers
Can an ex partner after a decree absolute has been granted issue proceedings against her partner for a house owned by a third party
prev Married To A Spaniard
  
next Historical Law Question Referring To Law In England 1900 To 1920
Gravatar

Answers

1 to 20 of 24rss feed

1 2 Next Last

Best Answer

No best answer has yet been selected by Elley. Once a best answer has been selected, it will be shown here.

For more on marking an answer as the "Best Answer", please visit our FAQ.
Avatar Image woofgang
on what basis? Is this the "friend" with the child who wants more money from her husband even though he has none?
09:05 Sat 29th Mar 2014
Avatar Image Elley
Question Author
Yes
10:28 Sat 29th Mar 2014
Avatar Image woofgang
so what is the basis for thinking she can get hold of some of the house?
10:58 Sat 29th Mar 2014
Avatar Image Elley
Question Author
Her ex spent money on it he dont own it
11:27 Sat 29th Mar 2014
Avatar Image Peaspeculiars
Elley, who owns the house if ''...owned by a third party...''?
Her or her parents or her new partner?
11:59 Sat 29th Mar 2014
Avatar Image Peaspeculiars
Sorry, it should have asked 'Him or his parents'/
12:01 Sat 29th Mar 2014
Avatar Image woofgang
doesn't necessarily give him a beneficial interest. if that was the case, landlords would never let tenants do anything to a rented property. I think she is clutching at straws here and would do better not spending money that she hasn't got on legal activity that will likely lead nowhere.
12:05 Sat 29th Mar 2014
Avatar Image Peaspeculiars
Yes Woofgang, what I was hinting at was that if the house belongs to a third party, it can't be touched/ equity released by the ex-couple at all. It simply does not belong to them.
12:11 Sat 29th Mar 2014
Avatar Image black_cat51
i think what you are saying is this:
your "friend" is divorced
she wants some more money from the ex husband
the ex husband has no money, but he has previously spent some money on a house owned by someone else (a new partner perhaps?)
She now wants to chase him for some of the money he spent on the house
Have i got it right?
16:12 Sat 29th Mar 2014
Avatar Image Elley
Question Author
Yes what are the chances she has already settled with the owners of the house
22:21 Sat 29th Mar 2014
-- answer removed --
Avatar Image woofgang
no, divebuddy, in gobbledegook!
22:26 Sat 29th Mar 2014
-- answer removed --
Avatar Image woofgang
divebuddy, de nada :-)
22:29 Sat 29th Mar 2014
-- answer removed --
Avatar Image EDDIE51
Elley your comment at 22.21 does not make sense , what are you trying to say?
22:36 Sat 29th Mar 2014
Avatar Image factor-fiction
I'm not sure , Elley whether you are asking:

"Yes, what are the chances she has already settled with the owners of the house?"

or

"Yes, what are the chances? She has already settled with the owners of the house"
22:42 Sat 29th Mar 2014
Avatar Image black_cat51
either makes no sense
22:45 Sat 29th Mar 2014
Avatar Image EDDIE51
^^ either way the chances are zero.
22:46 Sat 29th Mar 2014
Avatar Image woofgang
divebuddy......I am not spanish :-)
22:48 Sat 29th Mar 2014

1 to 20 of 24rss feed

1 2 Next Last

Do you know the answer?

Beneficial Interest

Answer Question >>