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Beneficial Interest

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Elley | 08:04 Sat 29th Mar 2014 | Law
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Can an ex partner after a decree absolute has been granted issue proceedings against her partner for a house owned by a third party
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on what basis? Is this the "friend" with the child who wants more money from her husband even though he has none?
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Yes
so what is the basis for thinking she can get hold of some of the house?
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Her ex spent money on it he dont own it
Elley, who owns the house if ''...owned by a third party...''?
Her or her parents or her new partner?
Sorry, it should have asked 'Him or his parents'/
doesn't necessarily give him a beneficial interest. if that was the case, landlords would never let tenants do anything to a rented property. I think she is clutching at straws here and would do better not spending money that she hasn't got on legal activity that will likely lead nowhere.
Yes Woofgang, what I was hinting at was that if the house belongs to a third party, it can't be touched/ equity released by the ex-couple at all. It simply does not belong to them.
i think what you are saying is this:
your "friend" is divorced
she wants some more money from the ex husband
the ex husband has no money, but he has previously spent some money on a house owned by someone else (a new partner perhaps?)
She now wants to chase him for some of the money he spent on the house
Have i got it right?
Question Author
Yes what are the chances she has already settled with the owners of the house
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no, divebuddy, in gobbledegook!
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divebuddy, de nada :-)
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Elley your comment at 22.21 does not make sense , what are you trying to say?
I'm not sure , Elley whether you are asking:

"Yes, what are the chances she has already settled with the owners of the house?"

or

"Yes, what are the chances? She has already settled with the owners of the house"
either makes no sense
^^ either way the chances are zero.
divebuddy......I am not spanish :-)

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