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Divorce Entitemeny
Is an ex entitled to property bought after seperation
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For more on marking an answer as the "Best Answer", please visit our FAQ.Its for my mother in law. She has been split from him 8 yr ago. He took all furniture and things he wanted at the time. She has worked ever since while he has been on benefits. She bout the house a yr after they seperated using all her own money and when she has replaced anything in the house she has given him the old stuff. hes phoned her tonight drunk as always and said he wants half
No they pit in for a divorce about 5 yrs ago and were just waiting for the dicri nisi however u spell it. But because they tried to reconsile the relationship. They stoppef the divorce. But he went back on the drink again and she couldnt cope. He didnt move back in or anything. Now she has asked for the divorce becausr everynight he gets drunk he oins her . He has phonedher tonight saying he Iis going for half her assets. Which she bought after they seperated. But he didnt want anything in the original divorce. Like I said when they split he took evetything he wanted and she has given him things since
I think it is time to hire a lawyer
and I dont say that often as they cost money
however it doesnt from what you say look as tho they are going to get agreement, in which case it is time to pour money into lawyers' pockets.
Her point is going to be that she bought the stuff after separation with her money and so rightfully it is hers and not his....
and he is gonna say yeah but what about half the assets when I was with her ?
and I dont say that often as they cost money
however it doesnt from what you say look as tho they are going to get agreement, in which case it is time to pour money into lawyers' pockets.
Her point is going to be that she bought the stuff after separation with her money and so rightfully it is hers and not his....
and he is gonna say yeah but what about half the assets when I was with her ?
Ask the Citizens advice bureau. But prepare to be very disappointed. A friend of mine divorced her husband, and he went off abroad for years. He had plenty of family money, which he claimed he had spent abroad, and he came back and claimed ( and got ) half the value of the former family home. His exwife had waited for the decree nisi, as in the case you quote, but had not insisted on any letter being signed to say that neither party has any further claim on the other, which usually happens before the decree nisi. If the divorced person hasn't got this, there could indeed be a successful claim.
Claims where underage children are involved are very different, however.
Claims where underage children are involved are very different, however.
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