Goes back a while to a post of mine about the girl who is (in all but fact) OH's daughter-in-law, who has been very badly treated by his son- Exmouth way - EDDIE helped a great deal as did many others in the original post.
OK. She is 60 years old and does not have a mortgage - although years ago she had one with her first husband, which is now settled and well in the past. She doesn't earn a lot (Teaching Assistant). She and OH's son have reached an agreement whereby he buys her out of their shared house and this will JUST allow her to buy a tiny place, which she's managed to find (not in the area she'd like, but - hey!). It is £170K. She is worried about extras like surveyors fees etc., etc. which she won't be able to manage if she has to pay Stamp Duty of about £1K
(we have, obviously, offered to loan her the money, but she would be happier to be independent).
So, (sorry about that 'So' police). Would she class as a 1st time buyer and thereby avoid Stamp Duty, please? Thanks for any answers.
I would think it depends if the old mortgage comes up in a search by the new mortgage company. Was it in her present name? If so I would not take the risk of saying she was a first time buyer and then a search finding the old mortgage. That would give them a reason to refuse the application as not having been given the correct information.
Yes, I've just read it all. Thanks, both of you. I'll tell her she will have to accept an interest-free, long-as-she-likes-term loan. We'll manage. The saving in time and effort is much appreciated.
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