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TheBaron | 10:38 Tue 27th Feb 2007 | Law
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a french friend of my partners seems to think that if the same family owns a home for 100 years it becomes the governments property?

i dont think this is true? can anyone enlighten me?

thanks
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sound like a load of old cobblers to me, although I'm talking about UK, gawd knows what they get up to in France.
If that was so the Aristrocrats would be having a hard time of it and as most of the law lords lean towards the gentry I can't see that being the law!!
In Scotland, the Prescription and Limitation (Scotland) Act 1977, provides that if you posess a property openly, peaceably, and without judicial interruption, for a period of 10 years from the date possession commenced, you can register a conveyance in your own favour.

So your friend, in the context of Scotland, is talking merde.
does this mean the goverment can lay claim to windsor castle

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