The usual procedure is that the cost is borne by the person who was at fault in the accident, so at first glance it seems reasonable for the cyclist to ask for the money. As the police did not become involved, a lot of evidence is not available which may have shown the cyclist to be partly at fault in some way. My rather suspicious mind wonders how the man was uninjured if his glasses have to be replaced, and how his cycle needs to be replaced after what seems to have been a minor incident. I appreciate that the glasses may have flown off leaving him with no injuries. Has the man decided to have a new cycle, and then thought of your boyfriend as a likely source of finance? How long after the incident has the need for a new cycle become apparent. How long has he managed with glasses that need replacement? If this matter became a claim, it would rest largely on whether the amount of claim is reasonable and what proportion of the blame rests with your boyfriend. I suggest he approaches the question in that light. If there is no agreement, it is open to the cyclist to make a claim, which I would have thought unlikely. What he must not do is to agree to pay the money before he knows how much he is agreeing to. He could decide to offer a fixed amount.