Divorce settlements

[Icemaiden23]

If your partner purchases a property (home to live in for you both) to which you jointly agreed to be just in his name for mortgage (quickness) purposes - previous to marriage, 3 months, and you then live together in the property as a married couple for 5-6 years, both furnishing, contributing, etc, and are both in full-time employment during this period, although the mortgage and and MAIN utilities are paid from this person's bank account, are you both entitled to a share of this property? Would this be classed as matrimonial property. I would really like to get this matter clarified; hopefully someone can help!

[pingu97]

Not 100% sure but i'd say that as you were married surely you're entitled to half of everything, when me & my hubby bought our house I put in over 30 grand of my own money and as it came from compensation from an accident i had as a teenager i wanted that money to be secure, so he signed away his right to any of that money if we were to divorce, so ireckon as long as you didn't sign anything like that you should get half, but please dont quote me on that, you need to get proper legal advice most solicitors do free 1 hr consultations, good luck

[bednobs]

god i hope not! ok so the person has jointly contributed to things in the house, so let them have a joint share of things in the house!, not a joint share of the house. Imagine if the boot was on the othr foot (i presume this is you?) and you had an assest soley in your name, that only you had bought or contributed to and then someone else wanted some of it

[Ethel]

The home is matrimonial property, - it is not automatically a 50% entitlement, but you may be entitled to some of the equity. Good article here:

http://www.divorceaid.co.uk/financial/family-h ome.htm