I used to work in a leisure centre and was told that even though we would ban members of the public for extended periods of time, that it was acutally illegal to ban somebody from a public establishment without a court order.
My question is whether this is correct and if the same applies to other public authorities such as nightclubs etc... (most nightclubs will say they are privately owned and therefore reserve the right of entry but I am fairly sure that if you hold a public function then you are still subject to the human rights laws including discrimination laws).