My local MP, a Cabinet Minister, gave her reasons in the local paper last week why we should vote No in the referendum. The main reason she gave was that AV was confusing. I e-mailed her and said if a Cabinet Minister thought it was confusing they shouldn't be an MP in the first place.
Also, in the Daily Politics show today, after PMQs, they stated that both Margaret Thatcher & Tony Blair would have had much larger majorities if AV had been used in their day. How could they say that? As we only had one person one vote there would not have been any preference votes to redistribute.
Are they assuming that the person with the fewest votes would have had their votes given to the person with the most votes? If so they're wrong.
If I'm wrong I'd be grateful of an explanation.