Still on the ECHR ruling. Now we've got to the Supreme Court (still in Austria):
//21. On 11 December 2013 the Supreme Court... found that the applicant’s conviction under Article 188... constituted an interference with the right to freedom of expression, which had however been
justified[i ....because...the aim of the interference had been to protect religious peace and the religious [i]feelings[i] of others and was therefore legitimate. The Court had stated many times that in the context of religion member States had a duty to suppress certain forms of conduct or expression that were [i]gratuitously] offensive to others and profane. In cases where the impugned statements not only offended or shocked, or expressed a “provocative” opinion, but had also been considered an abusive attack on a religious group – for example an abusive attack on the Prophet of Islam, as in the applicant’s case – a criminal conviction might be necessary to protect the freedom of religion of others....the principles ... to be considered [were] whether a statement was capable of “arousing
justified indignation”...The courts therefore had to examine the meaning of the impugned statement, as well as the context in which it had been made and whether this statement was based on fact, or was a value judgment. Only by considering all of those points could the question of the ability to arouse justified indignation be examined.
22. Applying the above considerations to the applicant’s case, the Supreme Court held that she had not aimed to contribute to a serious debate about Islam or ...child marriage, but merely to defame Muhammad by accusing him of a specific sexual preference, based on the assumption that he had had sexual intercourse with a prepubescent child, in order to show that he was not a worthy subject of worship..the applicant had not contributed to a debate of general interest, because she had made her allegation primarily in order to defame Muhammad...the Supreme Court held that they had no longer been a contribution to a serious debate....the criminal conviction constituted a measure
necessary in a democratic[!} society within the meaning of Article 10 of the Convention.//
Do you see a degree of elasticity in the formulation of these hate-speech laws and in their possible interpretation?
What was the artist's intention here? Was it to "defame" Christ? Further, might it hurt peoples' "religious feelings"? Might it be considered "gratuitously offensive"? Or "profane". Might it be capable of arousing "justifiable indignation"?
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Piss_Christ