I mean, legally, yes. But I was careful in my choice of words. Morally I think it's a far harder sell. I could play all sorts of number games at this point, but really my point is that Parties tend to win election majorities with around 10-13 million votes, and the referendum, we are constantly reminded, saw about 17.5 million people vote Leave. Even if you believe -- as I do -- that:
1. Parliamentary democracy is, and should be, the primary means of expressing the people's will;
2. The "will of the people" should not be assumed to be static;
3. Just as no Parliament can be held to bind its successors, so can no electorate be held to be bound by its past self;
4. The referendum in 2016, whilst there is/was a moral duty to *try* and implement it, was still advisory and shouldn't be seen as binding;
then it's still a very difficult sell to suggest that the implicit decision of 10 million or so should override the explicit decision of 17.5 million. I completely believe in that argument but I also simply can't see how it would be persuasive to anyone who feels, justifiably, cheated out of their decision and lied to by politicians who had offered the referendum in the first place.