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weecalf | 23:23 Mon 17th Oct 2011 | ChatterBank
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Is it at all possible that a new letter could be added to the alphabet .Were there 26 letters in it since it was first formed or have letters be added There is no way I could think up a new letter ,was there ever an attempt to do so ?
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Alphabets vary widely across the world, with some disagreement as to what constitutes a 'letter'. For example, most Spanish dictionaries treat 'ch' and 'll' as separate letters but, last year, the 'Real Academia Española' decided that they're not. (However ñ, which is effectively a double n, is still regarded as a letter in its own right).

The English alphabet has lost quite a few letters over the years [including thorn (þ), eth (ð), wynn (ƿ), yogh (ȝ), ash (æ), and ethel (œ)], whereas j and u have been added, with 'uu' later being replaced by 'w'.

It would be possible, for example, to replace 'th' with a single letter but, unles someone comes up with a particular reason for doing so, that's unlikely to happen. Perhaps though, as world languages intermingle more and more, we might find that there's a word, imported from (say) an African or Asian language which has no easy way of spelling it; somebody might then introduce a new letter for the awkward sound.

Chris
> For example, most Spanish dictionaries treat 'ch' and 'll' as separate letters but, last year, the 'Real Academia Española' decided that they're not.

Chris, that's simply not true at all. 'ch' and 'll' are totally different sounds in Spanish.

E.g. 'como tu te llamas?' the fourth world is pronounced "YA-mas"

'muchacho' is pronounced as in English.
The point is, Mark, that (irrespective of the pronunciation) Spanish dictionaries listed 'chabacaneria' after 'cuyo', and 'llaga' after 'luz'.

The Real Academia Española (which is similar to, but probably less powerful than, the Académie Française) has now ruled that Spanish dictionaries should treat 'ch' and 'll' in the same way that English dictionaries would.
With respect, Chris, dictionary order is a totally different matter...
Don't tell me; tell the RAE!
http://www.rae.es/rae...aelFAQdeconsultas.htm
"It would be possible, for example, to replace 'th' with a single letter"

Wouldn't that be thorn though? (or should I say þough)
Yes, Chuck, it would be a retrograde step but it might also be a sensible one!
Apparently the "&" was part of the alphabet at one time. In the early 18th century the alphabet concluded with & but it was confusing to say, X,Y,Z, and,
so the students would say X,Y,Z and per se and. Per se means" by itself" so they were saying in effect,X,Y,Z and by itself, and. Over the years the words melled and ampersand was born and became the name of "&".
I've also seen sources saying that '&' was a separate letter at one time, Vulcan42, but I've always believed that its name ('ampersand') was derived from print workers calling for an 'and per se'.
I can see the sense behind it.

Also, didn't the alphabet finish "XYZ and per se and" until fairly recently which would make & a fairly recent 27th letter.
LOL, some good cross posting:)
The Welsh alphabet has ch, dd and ll among others as single letters.
Welsh isn't a language, TCL. It's just a way of clearing the phlegm from your throat ;-)
"Never ask for directions in Wales, Baldrick. You'll be washing spit out of your hair for a fortnight"
There could be a new letter aded to replace "wh" so that it shows that the "h" is pronounced to differentiate what and Watt for example.
^^ That's completely unnecessary! "what" and "Watt" are already pronounced differently, unless you think that TOWIE represents correct English, as are e.g. "Wales" and "whales", "weather" and "whether" etc...
I'm tired, added even..
I DO pronounce the h I was meaning it could be done for the English.
That makes no sense at all!
Right, WE pronounce the H but the English don't, so to make it clearer, represent WH by a new letter so that the English KNOW it has to be pronounced differently okay? Look, I'm tired and no doubt this will look like mince in the morning but at the mo, it makes sense to me...

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