Assuming this article is factually correct, the CPS believed this woman's claim but could not take it to court because:
" Any charge would have been under the Sexual Offences Act 1956 and proceedings would have had to have started within a year of the incident."
The headline is ambiguous:
"Actor escaped prosecution because law that applied at the time meant charge had to be brought within a year"
My question is - should she have reported it within a year of it happening OR did the police fail to charge him within a year of receiving the complaint?
If it is the former, why doesn't that apply to the Yewtree arrests?
Actor escaped prosecution because law that applied at the time meant charge had to be brought within a year
Read more:
http://www.dailymail.co.uk/news/article-2396840/TV-star-super-injunction-case-sex-girl-15-Famous-actor-recited-nursery-rhyme-seduced-victim.html#ixzz2cQhuvvuw