ChatterBank2 mins ago
Here's an odd one, wife to pay husband in divorce settlement
When they divorced, their assets were split equally, but his relied on an £88m investment in property, but it collapsed into negative value. She is an heiress so was told to pay him £5m out of her funds because his had gone down the tubes!
http://www.telegraph....vorce-settlement.html
http://www.telegraph....vorce-settlement.html
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No best answer has yet been selected by Androcles. Once a best answer has been selected, it will be shown here.
For more on marking an answer as the "Best Answer", please visit our FAQ.I think you may be missing the point. It's the fact that the value decreased between the initial agreement and the finalisation of the divorce. Presumably if the asset value had risen in that period, she could have claimed more from him at the time of finalisation. Once the divorce was finalised, the deal was done, and any rise or fall subsequently becomes irrelevant. The important thing was that their assets should be split 50/50 at the time of the divorce, not before or after.
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