Haram And Taboo Are Words From Other...
ChatterBank6 mins ago
Hi there, the BBC recently broadcast the excellent series Rome. If the series was set around 400yrs to 800yrs AD, when was the "F" word first used, as in this television series the "F" was used quite a lot. Or was the word just used in the series to add some venom to a particular situation ?
Cheers, John.
No best answer has yet been selected by bererunner. Once a best answer has been selected, it will be shown here.
For more on marking an answer as the "Best Answer", please visit our FAQ.It's generally considered that this has a middle English origin, so it's unlikely to have been used - they probably had their own words.
No one knows for certain but I've read it could come from "for unlawful carnal knowledge" when people weren't married to "fornicate under command of the King" but these might be made up.
The word has nothing whatever to do with acronyms such as the one suggested by Postdog above. These are, indeed, all "made up". The earliest-recorded direct written use of the f-word in English was in a poem by the Scottish writer, Dunbar, in 1503.
There were earlier coy 'hints' about the word hidden away in written material. One of those was a satirical poem that dealt with the Carmelite friars of Cambridge. A line in code reads, once it's �translated': "They are not in heaven because they f-word wives of Ely".
Some people claim it came from the German word 'ficken', meaning 'to strike'. However, the Oxford English Dictionary - the etymology 'bible' - can see no reason to suppose there ever was any such direct connection and simply claims the etymology is unknown.
It seems likely, however, that both words, the English and the German, may have had a common root in the ancient Germanic language. So, the roots of the word may have existed in Roman times, though it may never have been used as an oath, as we do today.