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Jake is, of course, correct that spin 1 implies a bi-directional force. I don�t understand the book well enough to summarize, but page 318 explains why gravity is observed as unidirectional. Page 382 describes the spin 1 particle as the generator for the inertial reaction � so I am perhaps mistaken in calling it a graviton. Chapters 17 and 18 are also relevant. The explanation is convincing. It avoids the problem of re-normalisation, gives a possible explanation of the instantaneity of collapse of the wave-function, explains inertia, etc.
Is the fact that gravity is always observed to be attractive the only evidence for the graviton being spin 2? I had hoped that a spin 2 particle was needed to complete a group.
(If anyone intends to read Zero to Infinity leave chapter 1 to last or else it will appear pure numerology.)