a space/time question part 2

[andytheplumb]

in my last question titled a space/time question. If time has passed more slowly for the equator than the poles due to time dilation. Over 4 billion or so years does anybody know how much older the equator is compared to the poles and if so this surely must mean that anybody travelling from either pole to the equator has infact travelled back in time simply by moving across a spinning spherical body???? also if what im saying is right how about if somebody where to travel accross a spinning galaxy does that make above and below the galaxy younger than the outside???? sorry if im boring any off you, but i find this subject fascinating.

[mibn2cweus]

In calculating time dilation gravity (General Relativity) and velocity (Special Relativity) must both be taken into account. As a consequence of these two variables time dilation is nearly constant over the surface of the Earth. This means that the Equator and the Poles age at the same rate.

In a case where unequal time dilation has taken place at separate locations, this does not create a duality in the present. Time dilation is not time travel. Time travel (if possible) would required exceeding the velocity of light.