ChatterBank2 mins ago
Is The Answer 42?
83 Answers
An infinite number of points A are placed at random on an infinitely long line. A second infinity of points B are also placed at random on the line. How many B's coincide with one or more A's on average?
Answers
My gut feeling is that the answer should be zero but I am sure there's a better way to answer this than relying on points/line = countable/ uncountable -> 0
10:51 Sat 06th Jun 2020
er I cant believe the answer is zero =nor a finite number such as 42 - soI tend toward infinity as an average
it of course depends on how you generate ( or which algorithm you use ) the infinite humbers and whether they are are countable or uncountable
Taking a set of odd numbers and an infinite one of evens you have got zero
and so if you have an infinite number of tries
with different algorithms...
then I suggest there are an infinite number of zero s and an infinite number of (infinite number of overlays)
it of course depends on how you generate ( or which algorithm you use ) the infinite humbers and whether they are are countable or uncountable
Taking a set of odd numbers and an infinite one of evens you have got zero
and so if you have an infinite number of tries
with different algorithms...
then I suggest there are an infinite number of zero s and an infinite number of (infinite number of overlays)
// There are, in fact, as many even numbers as there are whole numbers. //
er yeah and countable - I intended
I just wanted to show that it was possible depending on how you to construct a line that never has another point overlying it
if you feel an even humber line isnt random then pick each elet randomly
er yeah and countable - I intended
I just wanted to show that it was possible depending on how you to construct a line that never has another point overlying it
if you feel an even humber line isnt random then pick each elet randomly
// If you haven't tossed a tail yet, it isn't because it won't happen. It's because you haven't been going long enough. //
If you go infinitely long it still doesn't "have" to happen at some point. It's mistaken to assume that something will happen if you carry on long enough. That's not how probability works. When you get to infinity, an individual event with probability 1 doesn't necessarily have to happen, and an individual event with probability 0 still could happen.
If you go infinitely long it still doesn't "have" to happen at some point. It's mistaken to assume that something will happen if you carry on long enough. That's not how probability works. When you get to infinity, an individual event with probability 1 doesn't necessarily have to happen, and an individual event with probability 0 still could happen.
"So if I roll a fair six sided die an infinite times could I eventually throw a 7?"
No. But if you roll a fair six-sided die infinitely many times you may never get a six. An event still has to be in the space of possibilities in order to happen, and an event outside the space can never happen -- but in between these two, there are events which have a probability zero without being "impossible".
No. But if you roll a fair six-sided die infinitely many times you may never get a six. An event still has to be in the space of possibilities in order to happen, and an event outside the space can never happen -- but in between these two, there are events which have a probability zero without being "impossible".
I get the probability thing Jim, but I think you're underestimating the size of infinity. The point of it is that until the possible event happens, you've got to keep going until it does. If you ever get to the end of infinity, (which obviously you can't) and it still hasn't happened, then it wasn't possible in the first place.
What I meant was: Pick a number. It can be any number. Let's assume you've chosen 3.14159265358979....
Now start picking numbers at random. Perhaps the first is 4.6692016025... This isn't the same as your chosen number, so don't count it. Pick another. Keep picking random numbers and comparing then with your chosen number. Count those that match exactly. After you have picked an infinite number of random numbers, you have picked approximately as many numbers as there are digits in pi, or whatever your chosen number was. The number of numbers you have chosen, and the number of digits of pi, are both infinite, but they are similar sizes of infinity - what is known as Aleph-null or a countable infinity. Because you had the same number of comparisons as the number of digits in your chosen number, you should very, very roughly have an even chance of matching that number exactly with one of the random numbers.
Now start picking numbers at random. Perhaps the first is 4.6692016025... This isn't the same as your chosen number, so don't count it. Pick another. Keep picking random numbers and comparing then with your chosen number. Count those that match exactly. After you have picked an infinite number of random numbers, you have picked approximately as many numbers as there are digits in pi, or whatever your chosen number was. The number of numbers you have chosen, and the number of digits of pi, are both infinite, but they are similar sizes of infinity - what is known as Aleph-null or a countable infinity. Because you had the same number of comparisons as the number of digits in your chosen number, you should very, very roughly have an even chance of matching that number exactly with one of the random numbers.
// I think the problem is similar to: chose any number, pi, //
er pi isnt any number - transcendental for a start
and you cant enumerate it ( finitely - like you can 0.5)
and how are you going to select your second random - it is via an algorithm ( as they are - pseudo random) then it is in the set of countable numbers and Pi is in the uncountables
so no - I dont think it is the same at all
er pi isnt any number - transcendental for a start
and you cant enumerate it ( finitely - like you can 0.5)
and how are you going to select your second random - it is via an algorithm ( as they are - pseudo random) then it is in the set of countable numbers and Pi is in the uncountables
so no - I dont think it is the same at all