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No best answer has yet been selected by Magic 1. Once a best answer has been selected, it will be shown here.
For more on marking an answer as the "Best Answer", please visit our FAQ.As Clanad says, AM and PM are abbreviations of 'ante meridiem' and 'post meridiem' which mean - in Latin - 'before' and 'after the middle of the day'.
Some people apparently use 12 AM to mean midnight and 12 PM to mean midday. However, there really is no 12 AM or 12 PM. Why? Since 12 noon actually is the middle of the day, how could it possibly be either 'before' or 'after' itself? The same applies to 12 midnight, which is equidistant from noon, whichever way around you look at it, so it's no more before noon than it is after noon!
Much better to use the 24 hour clock, no such possible ambiguity arises. Days start and end at precicely 0000hrs and midday is 1200hrs. Timetables and other synchronisations can be carried out seamlessly, and you can perform arithmetic on the time a lot easier in 24hr mode. Our friendly neighbours in France, Belgium, Netherlands, Germany, etc. have been doing this for at least a couple of generations.
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However, there really is no 12 AM or 12 PM. Why? Since 12 noon actually is the middle of the day, how could it possibly be either 'before' or 'after' itself?
but noon & midnight themselves actually last for one single instant. therefore 12pm, as it generally refers to a tangible period of time, is noon because 12 hours and 0.000000000000001 seconds after midnight is after noon. hence the PM for midday and the AM for midnight - it's a convention because even if it was AM for one instant at exactly 12 noon, it'd then flip to PM for the remainder of the hour
Well, don't just take my word for it. How about the view of a British scientific website dealing with Greenwich and matters of time? To see what that is, click http://www.greenwichmeantime.com/info/noon.htm
If you'd prefer an American viewpoint, how about that of the American Government's National Institute of Standards and Technology? You'll find that by clicking
http://www.physics.nist.gov/News/Releases/questions.html
Well, personally, MD, I don't think your explanation is right, but - from here on - I can't be bothered arguing about it. It seems to me that - no matter how long you deem midday or midnight to "last" - it still, by definition, cannot be either before or after itself.
In your own latest answer, you say (quote): "AM starts directly after midnight" which cannot possibly mean the same thing as "at the instant at which midnight occurs", which you tack on to it.
What you're saying is exactly the same as saying: "Midnight happens before AM starts"? And that's precisely my point, Clanad's point and the point of the two authoritative web-pages I provided links for. For me...here endeth the story.