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No best answer has yet been selected by helen roche. Once a best answer has been selected, it will be shown here.
For more on marking an answer as the "Best Answer", please visit our FAQ.The OED, as you no doubt know, is extremely detailed and scholarly in its handling of the etymology and historical development of English words and phrases. As I said, though, it makes no reference to a "bench of bishops" other than to the one I already mentioned in the House of Lords. Does your dictionary offer a date or a source - eg historical document/novel-title/whatever - as to when and where the phrase supposedly originated?
My problem is, you see, that the OED is regarded by language-experts as the greatest work of language-erudition in history. When it fails to support a claim, I generally do, too. Cheers
It's an incredibly archaic book called 'The New Elizabethan Reference Dictionary'. It's one of those 1950's volumes that includes legal terms, characters and names from literature etc. but what it doesn't provide is the sort of source, or proof of origin that you require. Never mind - I found this on the first page, absolutely nothing to do with benches or bishops, just thought you might like it.
Words are the dress of thoughts, which should no more be presented in rags, tatters, and dirt, than your person should. Earl of Chesterfield.
Einstein, I'm certainly happy to go with your idea of 'bench' as an 'unofficial' collective noun for bishops.
As I've already said, I'm perfectly happy for people to refer to a bench of bishops...I'd just like them to be aware that this is a language-structure based on little more than the alliterative 'b'.
I'm sure Fred isn't really saying that - at a coronation, royal wedding or whatever, where several bishops might be involved in the ritual - the next day's newspaper might say: "...a bench of bishops participated in the ceremony". In other words, it is simply not a collective term in the way being asked for here!