According to one of those RC inventions, Mary herself was supposedly born of a virgin called Anna. In the pagan god-man story, which precedes the Jesus story by centuries, all the god-men involved were born of virgins.
In any case, how on earth would the unknown authors of "Luke" (written AD80-85) and "Matthew" (AD85-90) possible know anything about the state of Mary's hymen nearly a century previously when the only previous writers ("Mark" and Paul) had mentioned it? And how would they have known anyway?
Use your commonsense. It's all a fairytale.