ChatterBank3 mins ago
is a contract legally binding if it's signed but not dated ?
The question's in the title, really. Is a contract legally binding if one of the parties signs it but does NOT date the signature ?
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A contract doesn't need to be in writing for it to be legally binding. If I call in a builder and we verbally agree that he'll do a certain job, for which I'll pay a certain price, we've both entered into a legally binding contract. If we were to put that contract into writing, the absence of a date wouldn't nullify the validity of the contractual agreement which we'd already entered into verbally.
If the person who failed to add a date to his signature wanted to get out of the contract, he could try to convince a court (if the matter got that far) that he'd deliberately omitted the date with the full knowledge of the other party because he'd only given his signature as an indication of good faith that he'd fully enter into the contract (by dating the document) at a later date, if certain conditions were met by the other party. However, unless he had supporting evidence, it's likely that a court would disregard his argument and declare that the contract was still valid.
Chris
A contract doesn't need to be in writing for it to be legally binding. If I call in a builder and we verbally agree that he'll do a certain job, for which I'll pay a certain price, we've both entered into a legally binding contract. If we were to put that contract into writing, the absence of a date wouldn't nullify the validity of the contractual agreement which we'd already entered into verbally.
If the person who failed to add a date to his signature wanted to get out of the contract, he could try to convince a court (if the matter got that far) that he'd deliberately omitted the date with the full knowledge of the other party because he'd only given his signature as an indication of good faith that he'd fully enter into the contract (by dating the document) at a later date, if certain conditions were met by the other party. However, unless he had supporting evidence, it's likely that a court would disregard his argument and declare that the contract was still valid.
Chris
My previous work place I worked at a club in London I organised a concert and the Manager working there emailed me agreement by email same day I went to sign it but he added new changes to this agreement without informing me so I asked him before signing is this the same agreement as the one you emailed me ? his answer was yes, I then asked him have you added any changes to this agreement he said no, so as I worked previously at this club, and I read this agreement he emailed me at home I trusted him and and the club so I just signed it. I paid 1k deposit + if the minimum bar spend would not be meet agreed they take the door charge money and keep the 1k deposit,I then after the concert was over been asked to pay the bar shortfall which we never agreed and this was never on the agreement I received on my email but it was added without me knowing so as I was an ex employee I trusted them and just signed this new agreement without reading it again so now they are threating me by sending me emails with their solicitor! can they sue me? should I take this serious? should I take legal advice?
Kingibo - Unfortunately I think it would cost you a lot more than £1k to try to prove that you were duped into signing, especially as your case would have to be based on 'I said, he said' verbal arguments. You might also easily lose & be faced with the other side's legal costs as well. The problem is that the courts will always look mainly at what can be shown in writing. You signed the contract ; if you didn't read it, you are still bound by it & you probably just have to pay up. Experience is unfortunately often very expensive.
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