I have just been told by a friend that Drake caused the Spanish Armada and I am saying that he did not. There's a bottle of wine at stake here. Can anyone help?
Well possibly, but not really. It was more about the claim to the English throne.
War broke out between Spain and England in 1585. Drake sailed to the New World and sacked the ports of Santo Domingo and Cartagena. On the return leg of the voyage, he captured the Spanish fort of San August�ne in Florida. These exploits encouraged Philip II of Spain to order the planning for an invasion of England.
Although Drake was a tad irritating to the Spaniards and the Armada was partly sent to suppress attacks on spanish possessions in the new world. The real main purposes of the Armada were to do with support for the United Provinces, to re-establish catholocism in England but ultimately King Philip's attempt to invade England and overthrow Queen Elizabeth I.
Octavius, you are right again.
In history, causes, per se, are rarely cut-and-dried.
If Drake caused the Armada, then Haig caused WW1
and Churchill caused WW2 - or was it Gavrilo Princep
and Erwin Rommel ?