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James I
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Why James I failed to achieve financial solvency
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No I dont think it was govt pensions. They started in 1844, along with civil service exams.
James VI of Scotland when he became king of England in 1603 cd not wait to hop on the bus and take his throne in London. The reason was of course money.
He could only raise money by taxation and that could only be done with the consent of parliament. There was no budget and he applied to parliament for money as and when the need arose. Finally the money went to run his own household as well the country.
So why did Jas I not achieve financial solvency - 0 actually i had nt realised he hadnt - lack of a modern infrastructure, and lack of will of parliament to give money. That's it. Sorry history is not my subject
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