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House Deeds

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Sue Scott | 09:56 Fri 04th Jan 2008 | Law
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When we divorced 17 years ago my ex-husband and I decided not to sell our house at the time for financial reasons and agreed to keep the house as an investment for our children. He has lived there alone. both our names are on the deeds of the house. 1. Can he sale the house without my agreement, 2, if I decide to remarry does this affect my legailty of ownership of the house?

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1. No. But he can effectively force you to agree by asking you to buy his share. He can't do it without your knowledge

2. No
Note that if one of you were to buy the other ones share you would have to pay stamp duty on the half being transferred. Just another way to get money out of the poor taxpayer.
He can't sell without your agreement just like that, of his own motion. But if joint owners of property cannot agree on selling then a county court can order a sale ( under the Trusts of Land and Appointment of Trustees Act 1996)You are not obliged to buy him out. He can go to the Court and ask for such an order, if he wants.

Your remarriage would make no difference. You remain a joint owner.

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