Today I Heard My First . . . . .
ChatterBank0 min ago
For example in Spain London is called Londres, but Manchester is the same. Spain is called Espa�a and England is Inglaterra. Why??? Shouldn't a country or a towns name remain the same no matter what language is being spoken.
No best answer has yet been selected by spainlads. Once a best answer has been selected, it will be shown here.
For more on marking an answer as the "Best Answer", please visit our FAQ.the same reason different languages have different words for anything, I suppose: words change and evolve. Spain is what English people have called that country for a long time; it was once no doubt the English way of pronouncing a foreign word but it's now become an English word itself. Likewise Spaniards have long called the southern part of that misty island to the north Inglaterra, which sounds like a direct translation of Engla-land. These are names that go back a long way, to the days when countries were many days' or weeks' journey apart and few people ever crossed borders. But towns like Manchester have entered international consciousness much more recently, since spellings and pronunciations were formalised (basically after the Renaissance, I think), and they're less likely to be different from the original.
Sometimes a political element is involved, Indians have recently begun changing what they regard as British-imperialist city names, so Madras and Bombay are now Chennai and Mumbai. Cambodia changed its name to Kampuchea but eventually changed it back. Burma has renamed itself Myanmar and Rangoon is Yangon. Up to you whether you go along with any of these, there doesn't seem to be a consensus.
There's been another thread on this, Sp-lads, and I think we need QM to help.....
The set of names of Places which have translation are called geonyms or something. ? toponyms - polinyms? Anyway they have a name I was astounded to read in AB a few weeks ago.
What was the question? Oh why do we have different words in different languages - well of course we do or else we would all be speaking spanish wouldnt we?
As for netibiza's cant the Thpanith thay Elithabeth? Of course they can't - they all lithp.
The Spanish in Andaluthia thpent three months telling me that the Spanish for Elizabeth was Isabel and not isabella. The English for Isabel is Isabella as far as I can see - and one can see why. Isabel II around 1851 was a rapacious tart - more like Diana than Gloriana, but that of course is a different story.
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