Body & Soul0 min ago
1=2
Because the proof is flawed, why do people still bother with it? if you do it with numbers, it doesn't work but if you do it with letters then it kind of does, until you realise that you are dividing by 0.
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For more on marking an answer as the "Best Answer", please visit our FAQ.For the benefit of those who haven’t seen this ‘proof’ before:-
a = b [multiply by a]
a^2 = ab [subtract b^2]
a^2-b^2 = ab-b^2 [factorise]
(a+b)(a-b) = b(a-b) [divide by (a-b)]
a+b = b
I recall that my maths teacher could not find the flaw in the above equations.
But then it was a secondary modern comprehensive school – the main purpose of which was to provide adult employment for those who would otherwise be unemployable.
a = b [multiply by a]
a^2 = ab [subtract b^2]
a^2-b^2 = ab-b^2 [factorise]
(a+b)(a-b) = b(a-b) [divide by (a-b)]
a+b = b
I recall that my maths teacher could not find the flaw in the above equations.
But then it was a secondary modern comprehensive school – the main purpose of which was to provide adult employment for those who would otherwise be unemployable.