Hi Luse and RW
As already mentioned, the only people that can advise you and properly answer your queries in full is the legal team that represented your partners.
I can see why you are questioning a conviction for robbery but I believe it will help you more if you understand what the offence is.
In its most basic format, robbery is an aggravated form of theft by the threat or use of force. For there to be a robbery there has to be a theft (excluding attempt offences). Theft is, ‘dishonestly appropriating property belonging to another with the intent to permanently deprive the other of it’.
You are right to query the issue regarding the £30 being owed but I note that a separate ‘alternative indictment’ of theft was added during the trial, obviously indicating this issue of rightful ownership at the relevant time is disputed by the prosecution.
The wording of the offence robbery states:
A person is guilty of robbery if he ‘steals’ and immediately before or at the time of doing so, and in order to do so, he uses force on any person or puts or seeks to put any person of fear of being then or there subjected to force. (the word ‘steals’ means theft as per the definition above).
You have stated that your understanding of robbery is that it has to be pre-planned and requires ‘intent’ for the offence to be complete but if you look at the definition of robbery again you will see that the word ‘intent’ is not included. However, it is clearly obvious intent is required to commit theft and there has to be a theft to complete the offence of robbery and (only) that the use of force, or threat of force must be in order to steal. The question whether the use of force was used to commit the theft is a question of fact and therefore a matter for a jury.
As I have stated, this is the very basic’s of robbery / theft as there is a lot more to it. There is a ton of stated cases regarding all sorts of issues surrounding these two offences but you will get all your answers in detail in due course.