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Anyone else heard that teaser...?
"John, where James had had 'had' had had 'had had'. 'Had had' had had the examiners aproval."
After years of people trying to explain it to me I finally get it!!!!! Also, it's easier to understand when you see it written down.
No best answer has yet been selected by Doggri. Once a best answer has been selected, it will be shown here.
For more on marking an answer as the "Best Answer", please visit our FAQ.crisgal wrote:
duh, i don't get the "had" one!
Smith and Jones both took an examination to test their knowledge and usage of the English language. In one sentence, they were unsure about whether to use the simple past tense (for example, "he had measles") or the pluperfect tense (for example, "he had had measles"). Jones decided to employ the simple past tense, and therefore wrote "...had...". Smith, however, decided to use the past perfect (or pluperfect) tense, and wrote "...had had...". The examiner who marked their answers made the judgement that the use of the pluperfect tense was more appropriate in the circumstances, and so gave higher marks to the person who had written "had had" rather than "had".